posted May 26, 2011, 5:01 AM by Garrett Fogerlie

If you believe that your bible or whatever holy book you have, made prophecies that later were fulfilled, how do you explain the secular scholarly consensus that no such prophecies were actually recorded before the predicted event? Isn't it vastly more likely that the writer who wrote the story that "fulfilled" a prophecy, altered their story so that it would fulfill a prominent prophecy in their culture?

What single prophecy would you say is the one that should be most impressive to skeptics?